题面
19.(本题满分14分)
已知数列 {an} 和 {bn} 满足 a1a2a3⋯an=(2)bn (n∈N∗) . 若 {an} 为等比数列,且 a1=2,b3=6+b2
(I) 求 an 与 bn ;
(II) 设 cn=an1−bn1(n∈N∗). 记数列 {cn} 的前 n 项和为 Sn,
(i) 求 Sn ;
(ii)求正整数 k ,使得对任意 n∈N∗ 均有 Sk≥Sn
解析
:(I) ∵a1a2a3…an=(2)bn(n∈N∗) ①,
当 n≥2 , n∈N∗ 时, a1a2a3…an−1=(2)bn−1 ②,
由①÷②知:当 n≥2 时, an=(2)bn−bn−1 ,令 n=3 ,则有 a_3 = (\sqrt{2})^{b_3 - b_2}$$\because \mathrm{b}_3 = 6 + \mathrm{b}_2 , \therefore \mathrm{a}_3 = 8$$\because \{\mathrm{a_n}\} 为等比数列,且 a1=2 , ∴{an} 的公比为 q ,则 q2=a2a3=4
由题意知 an>0 , ∴q>0 , \therefore \mathrm{q} = 2$$\therefore a_{n} = 2^{n} ( n∈N∗ ).
又由 a1a2a3…an=(2)bn(n∈N∗) ,得: 21×22×23×⋯×2n=(2)bn
即 2^{\frac{n(n + 1)}{2}} = (\sqrt{2})^{b_{n}}$$\therefore \mathrm{b_n = n(n + 1)(n\in N^*)}
(II)(i) \because c_{n} = \frac{1}{a_{n}} -\frac{1}{b_{n}} = \frac{1}{2^{n}} -\frac{1}{n(n + 1)} = \frac{1}{2^{n}} -(\frac{1}{n} -\frac{1}{n + 1})$$\therefore S_{n} = c_{1} + c_{2} + c_{3} + \dots +c_{n} = \frac{1}{2} -(\frac{1}{1} -\frac{1}{2}) + \frac{1}{2^{2}} -(\frac{1}{2} -\frac{1}{3}) + \dots +\frac{1}{2^{n}} -(\frac{1}{n} -\frac{1}{n + 1})$$= \frac{1}{2} +\frac{1}{2^2} +\dots +\frac{1}{2^n} -(1 - \frac{1}{n + 1}) = 1 - \frac{1}{2^n} -1 + \frac{1}{n + 1}$$= \frac{1}{n + 1} -\frac{1}{2^n}
(ii)因为 c1=0 , c2>0 , c3>0 , c4>0
当 n≥5 时, cn=n(n+1)1[2nn(n+1)−1]
而 2nn(n+1)−2n+1(n+1)(n+2)=2n+1(n+1)(n−2)>0 ,得 2nn(n+1)≤255∙(5+1)<1
所以,当 n≥5 时, cn<0
n∈N∗
S4≥Sn